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If the founding fathers were concerned about government capture by the elite, why did they limit the right to vote to land owners? They basically decided that o
by slavik81 9y ago
If the founding fathers were concerned about government capture by the elite, why did they limit the right to vote to land owners? They basically decided that only the wealthy could vote.
- libertyEQ 9y agoAt the time (e.g. 18th century), it was the best proxy for education. In the age of the internet, we have at least the prospect of learning at our own pace regardless of financial means. This requires an interest in knowledge while minimizing biases.
- slavik81 9y agoSure, but restricting voting to the educated is still restricting voting to the elite. It still doesn't seem compatible with limiting the influence of the elites on the government, which 32hkwejr claimed was their goal.
- libertyEQ 9y ago>restricting voting to the educated is still restricting voting to the elite. At that time... Buuuut we now live in the age of the internet, and knowledge is a pure commodity. There are authoritarians looking to muddy the waters and make knowledge more difficult to acquire, but for those interested in learning (like the kids I've worked with), there are plenty of free options I couldn't dream of at the public library I went to as a kid. We still have an issue of poor education, don't get me wrong, though it is not a result of elitism (quite the contrary).