By refering to 'math's invention' you are already prejudicing the matter. It is precisely whether Maths is a subset of subjective experience that we invented o

By refering to 'math's invention' you are already prejudicing the matter. It is precisely whether Maths is a subset of subjective experience that we invented or whether it has always been a superset of the universe our subjective experience is embedded in that we merely discovered is precisely what is at issue here. It's easy to get confused by the language used to frame things. I could say that language only has countably infinite possible statements, so it must therefore be impossible to use set theory which is learnt through and derives from language to analyse uncountably infinite sets, but it would be a bad argument.