> It seems to me that given a sales tax, a flat and identical percentage of every individual’s spending will go to the sales tax. If a person is “rich” but it d

> It seems to me that given a sales tax, a flat and identical percentage of every individual’s spending will go to the sales tax. If a person is “rich” but it doesn’t translate into spending or their estate, then what does that mean? Investing isn't just neutral storing of value. Owning capital confers a benefit to its owner while they own it. The line between investment and spending is arguably quite blurry, so if you tax just "consumer spending" you hit those who live paycheck to paycheck much harder relative to the benefit they derive from their money.