2 ms·
If it can be demonstrated that your'e intentionally and knowingly deceiving someone in order to separate them from their money, it's fraud.
by AlexCoventry 9y ago
If it can be demonstrated that your'e intentionally and knowingly deceiving someone in order to separate them from their money, it's fraud.
- scientistem 9y agoIn this case, it’s not clear who the fraudsters deceived. If it’s the advertisers, how do you demonstrate malice rather than, uhh, stupidity? If it’s the consumers, that just seems like effective adertising. I guess, this is certainly colloquial fraud, but is there any evidence this could lead to a criminal suit?