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From wikipedia: "Red–green color blindness affects up to 8% of males and 0.5% of females of Northern European descent." That's around 4% of the population, no
by Franciscouzo 9y ago
From wikipedia:
"Red–green color blindness affects up to 8% of males and 0.5% of females of Northern European descent."
That's around 4% of the population, not 0.001%.
- mrleiter 9y agoWell, those 4% hold true if there is an equal amount of males and females of Northern European decent. But yeah, should be aroune 4%.
- gsich 9y agoThat's red-green color deficiency, not "colorblindness" as in "I only see grayscale". The english wikipedia says it's about 0.025% of the population [0]. So I'll take that instead of the german one. [0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Achromatopsia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Achromatopsia
- fao_ 9y ago> That's red-green color deficiency, not "colorblindness" from The Free Dictionary: "Noun. 'color blindness' - genetic inability to distinguish differences in hue" and from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_blindness https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_blindness "Color blindness, also known as color vision deficiency, is the decreased ability to see color or differences in color.[2] [...] Red–green color blindness is the most common form, followed by blue–yellow color blindness and total color blindness.[2] Red–green color blindness affects up to 8% of males and 0.5% of females of Northern European descent.[2]" Your very specific definition of colour blindness (i.e. 'colour blindness' = 'Achromatopsia') does not seem to be represented in the colloquial usage. Thus the parent of you is correct.
- gsich 9y agoHe's not. I don't know why people assume that red-green color blindness/deficiency is equal to colorblindness. Because it's not. There is no need to save characters or be imprecise on this matter. Sure it may be used. But it's still a wrong usage. If you mean red/green say it. Otherwise it is not clear what is meant, and of course I'll assume total color blindness. Although, in german there are two words for this. "Rotgrünschwäche" and "Farbenblind". The first one is red/green, the other one total. People usually don't use both for different meanings.
- fao_ 9y ago> But it's still a wrong usage. There is no such thing as "correct" in language, except in Europe where one or two countries have official standards (e.g. France). For English there is only colloquial usage and maybe the Oxford English Dictionary (Which 99% of the time agree with each other). Both of them state that "Color-blindness" is the accepted term referring to all conditions related to color deficiency. > People usually don't use both for different meanings. And welcome to English, where we have one word that encompasses any color-deficiencies, and we call that word "color-blindness". It is used as a blanket term for any color-deficiency, including but not exclusive to red-green, yellow-blue, and monochrome vision. I can tell you now, that as a native English speaker, if you were to talk about "color blindness" to another native speaker, they will not assume that you mean Monochromacy specifically. In fact, they are more likely to think that you mean red-green color-blindness, since that is more common than Monochromacy. In any case, it is extremely rare to find usage that matches yours. (Literally. The first reference in the Oxford English Dictionary is to Protanopia, not Monochromacy: https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/colour-blind https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/colour-blind)