Both your [1] and [2] seem to conclude that violating the embargo had no significant ill effects: "since... the underlying issue was already publicly known, Ope

Both your [1] and [2] seem to conclude that violating the embargo had no significant ill effects: "since... the underlying issue was already publicly known, OpenBSD's commits don't change things much." If "defecting" causes no problems for the other participants, does it actually count as defecting? (And if not, how is this a mathematically simple prisoner's dilemma?)