3 ms·
Yes, but in the non-ideal case, the client is still being deceived. The general question is: do we have the right to deceive people "for their own good"? I say
by kranner 16y ago
Yes, but in the non-ideal case, the client is still being deceived.
The general question is: do we have the right to deceive people "for their own good"? I say no.
- bugsy 16y agoThey are not being deceived. They are being told to pay for the product they received in accordance with the contract terms they agreed to. There is nothing deceptive about a company wanting to be paid for services rendered or products delivered.