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Sure... but it's just as impossible to make a claim that it does.
by liberte82 9y ago
Sure... but it's just as impossible to make a claim that it does.
- dpark 9y agoExcept that it's not. The assertion made was that any empirical definition of consciousness that applies to humans would likewise apply to states. This is a straightforward claim. If you dispute this claim then all you need to do is provide an empirical definition of consciousness that applies to humans but not states. I will note that defining "consciousness" as something like "the human experience" is vacuous and doesn't count.