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That would be correct if the law was settled in this area. It is not. Generally you also need to prove intent for fraud, and if the law is not settled, it will
by kenbaylor 9y ago
That would be correct if the law was settled in this area. It is not.
Generally you also need to prove intent for fraud, and if the law is not settled, it will be hard to prove fraudulent intent.
- collinvine 9y agoOne argument here is that the law is settled. If it's securities law that applies, as the SEC has started, then it's been settled for over 80 years.