5 ms·

I'd say it's missing anything as clear as "Anything you say may be used against you in a court of law.", that implication is not obvious from the new warning to

• eridius 9y ago
  How is that not an obvious implication though? Does anyone actually think "oh yeah I can tell the cop, who can tell the judge, but the judge definitely won't use that info in the courtroom!"
  • mattnewport 9y ago
    The whole point of this effort is because the language of the standard Miranda is supposedly too difficult to understand for some people...
    • eridius 9y ago
      Right, but the argument is that "the cop can tell the judge" is somehow not sufficient to imply that this information can be used against the person in court. But what other reason would there be to tell the judge? It seems like a pretty obvious implication that if the cop tells it to the judge, it can be used in court.
      • mattnewport 9y ago
        It's misleading I think, people generally know the judge is supposed to be impartial, it's the "used against you" part that is key. Surprisingly few people realize that you should under no circumstances talk to the police without a lawyer, especially if you're innocent.