You wouldn't call linguistic relativity a settled matter? Because it pretty much is, especially the strong form. And evidence for the weak form is quite lacking

You wouldn't call linguistic relativity a settled matter? Because it pretty much is, especially the strong form. And evidence for the weak form is quite lacking, relying mainly on the work of Boroditsky, whose main article has never been published and who doesn't control for culture, education, etc. in her others. It seems to me that culture has much more influence on how someone things/perceives things than language ever could... Which also explains why very different cultures can use the same language -- if language determined your thoughts, wouldn't, say, Quebecois and French culture be fairly uniform, not to add Algerian or Cote D'Ivoirean (is that even a word?) in.