This is an interesting thought! If an employer pays people who are a flight-risk more (a-la "the squeaky wheel gets the grease"), and women are on average a lo

This is an interesting thought! If an employer pays people who are a flight-risk more (a-la "the squeaky wheel gets the grease"), and women are on average a lower flight risk because they are more risk-averse - is the resulting pay disparity a case of illegal discrimination? My intuition says no, but I'm not sure everyone (including the legal system) necessarily agrees.