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No, this is incorrect. You can map the set of rational numbers to the set of natural numbers. The set of reals in that range is shown to be uncountably infinite
by agf 9y ago
No, this is incorrect. You can map the set of rational numbers to the set of natural numbers. The set of reals in that range is shown to be uncountably infinite by Cantor diagonalization.
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1r5aya/eli5_how_there_are_more_numbers_between_0_and_1/ https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1r5aya/e...
- deckar01 9y agoAh, I was thinking of the rationals. Thanks for the ELI5 link.