> the government still bears the burden of proving that the property is the proceeds of a crime Is it possible that's only at the federal level (which of cours

> the government still bears the burden of proving that the property is the proceeds of a crime Is it possible that's only at the federal level (which of course is what the House's bill addresses)? I've read many articles in credible sources, such as the Washington Post, saying that the owner of the property has to demonstrate they are its rightful owner (or some similar standard). The articles said many abandon their property because the cost of contesting the seizure, including attorney costs, outweighed its value.