4 ms·
IANAL, but I've read that when there's no explicit patent grant written, an implicit patent grant can be inferred, since MIT says you have the ability to use it
by neilparikh 9y ago
IANAL, but I've read that when there's no explicit patent grant written, an implicit patent grant can be inferred, since MIT says you have the ability to use it (which would require a patent grant if covered by patents). If that is the case, no (explicit) patent grant would be better than this grant.