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That answer only addresses the "copyright license", others argue that plain BSD is a "license to use". If BSD is a "license to use", then it is implicitly a co
by DougBTX 9y ago
That answer only addresses the "copyright license", others argue that plain BSD is a "license to use".
If BSD is a "license to use", then it is implicitly a copyright license _and_ a patent licence.
Assuming the above, the argument goes that the implicit patent license in plain BSD is overridden by the explicit patent license in BSD+Patents, and that the explicit one is much more restrictive than the (unwritten) implicit one.
The FAQ doesn't address that.
- abiox 9y agoFrom what I understand, React isn't under patent, so what patents would be 'implicitly licensed'?