3 ms·
Yes it does. In fact, in classical logic, A->B is equivalent to !B->!A. See https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contraposition https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contr
by tr352 9y ago
Yes it does. In fact, in classical logic, A->B is equivalent to !B->!A. See https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contraposition https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contraposition
- spookyuser 9y agoExactly. A consequence of this being true is the Raven Paradox [1], seemingly the OP has solved the classic riddle in a HN thread. [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Raven_paradox https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Raven_paradox