4 ms·
Actually, you're wrong. This doesn't disprove anything, unfortunately, because there also can be a feedback effect from people preferring fields with more peopl
by js8 9y ago
Actually, you're wrong. This doesn't disprove anything, unfortunately, because there also can be a feedback effect from people preferring fields with more people of their own gender (that is for example women will prefer jobs with more women over jobs with less women, ceteris paribus). In the presence of such feedback effects, even if the ratio of men and women who intent to work in some field is the same, you will get a dynamical system where the actual ratio can vary a great deal over time.
- ucaetano 9y ago> because there also can be a feedback effect from people preferring fields with more people of their own gender No, that would mean that women in business, architecture, physical sciences, etc. would not have increased. The fact that women in CS followed closely several other fields (business, architecture, etc.) means that % of women already on the field is not relevant. The fact that other fields that use skills similar to CS (math, stats, physical sciences) have much higher women ratios, show that there is no inherent biological factor impacting it.
- SamReidHughes 9y agoNo it doesn't, because they're different fields, some of which are pre-med related. And amidst programming itself there's different behaviors. Way more men design their own programming languages.
- ucaetano 9y agoThe same argument that would disprove my point would also disprove OP's point that it is biological.
- rjsw 9y agoMaybe worth looking at the proportions in other countries too, "pre-med" isn't the first step to becoming a doctor worldwide. I gather that Law differs a fair bit too.
- SamReidHughes 9y agoI bet that would not be useful because the cultural effects seem to be much different in magnitude even between European countries.
- deleted 9y ago[deleted]