Except for the fact that it implies that men are in higher, more well paid positions because of inherent biological traits. His point is quite clearly based on

Except for the fact that it implies that men are in higher, more well paid positions because of inherent biological traits. His point is quite clearly based on statistical reasoning, not absolutes. He makes this point blatantly clear when he makes the point about salary negotiations. He says that people with high agreeableness have more trouble negotiating than people with low agreeableness. Because high agreeableness is statistically more common among women, this is treated as a gender issue when it is quite clearly a personality issue. If you're going to consider this a problem, why not address agreeableness directly? Why frame it as a gender issue that ignores both agreeable men and disagreeable women?