5 ms·

Of course both are acceptable, why is this an audacious claim?

• Jedd 9y ago
  Because it invites (not begs) the question 'to whom are they both acceptable?'. People that contribute to thefreedictionary.com, evidently.
  • kapep 9y ago
    thefreedictionary.com is only one of many dictionaries that use "myriad of" in their examples. Here are some more: http://www.yourdictionary.com/myriad http://www.yourdictionary.com/myriad A quick Google Ngram search supports the claims from thefreedictionary, that "a myriad" or "myriads" was used first and that "myriad" as an adjective was only used later: https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=%28myriad_NOUN%2Bmyriads_NOUN%29%2Cmyriad_ADJ&year_start=1600&year_end=2000&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2C%28myriad_NOUN%20%2B%20myriads_NOUN%29%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Cmyriad_ADJ%3B%2Cc0 https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=%28myriad_NOUN... It looks like "myriad of" has been correct in the past and is still used widely.
  • randallsquared 9y ago
    And people who contribute to the OED, in both the 1989 and 2003 editions, evidently. http://www.oed.com/view/Entry/124538 http://www.oed.com/view/Entry/124538 http://www.oed.com/oed2/00154839;jsessionid=AC4DB817EFBADA5F500874E63F5A5E38 http://www.oed.com/oed2/00154839;jsessionid=AC4DB817EFBADA5F... I have had similar experiences, though, where I was convinced that some word or phrase usage was just incorrect, and where it turned out that I had just not happened across it. Fortunately, a minute of research can today fix any such misconceptions!