> So how is retrocausal QM different from Bohmian mechanics From what I can tell from this, there's no difference in the sense that it's experimentally indisti

> So how is retrocausal QM different from Bohmian mechanics From what I can tell from this, there's no difference in the sense that it's experimentally indistinguishable. It's different in the sense that Bohmian mechanics relies on a non-local pilot wave to match QM results. This frees the other assumption i.e. causality to get to the same answer. TBH I can't see either get much attention until someone comes up with a way to make them produce different results compared to standard QM approaches. Either that or someone finds a way to make QM calculations substantially easier using these approaches. In other words, if they produce new physics or have practical value.