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This author misuses a gaussian distribution by way of claiming that a standard deviation is outrageous...all on a phenomenon that is overwhelmingly likely NOT t
by DINKDINK 9y ago
This author misuses a gaussian distribution by way of claiming that a standard deviation is outrageous...all on a phenomenon that is overwhelmingly likely NOT to be gaussian distributed.
- simonster 9y agoFor anyone who's curious, the procedure used is described in http://www.aliquote.org/pub/odds_meta.pdf http://www.aliquote.org/pub/odds_meta.pdf. The standardized mean difference is given by: log((65/35)/(5/95))/(pi/sqrt(3)) = 1.9646484930140864 The justification for this procedure is that the judges are assumed to make decisions by dichotomizing a continuous variable with logistic distributed error (this one statistical justification for logistic regression; see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logistic_regression#Latent_variable_interpretation https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logistic_regression#Latent_var...). The mean difference in the continuous variable is given by the log odds ratio times some constant, and the standard deviation of the continuous variable is pi/sqrt(3) times the same constant. Because the logistic distribution resembles a normal distribution (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logistic_distribution https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logistic_distribution and figure in paper), the standardized mean difference given by this method will approximately equal the standardized mean difference of the latent continuous variable.
- soVeryTired 9y agoHe doesn't mention the Gaussian distribution anywhere. He just says the effect size is too big to be plausibly generated by hunger alone.
- thanatropism 9y agoThere's something like a Godwin's law for the Gaussian distribution. Whoever claims that the other person is making an unwarranted Gaussian assumption has lost the discussion.