3 ms·

Don't judges have immunity from legal retaliation to their actions as judges?

• jhall1468 9y ago
  Only monetary damages. But they have effective immunity from prosecution because it's (as far as I know) never happened that a prosecutor has pressed charges against a judge for his ruling, outside of corruption.
  • gozur88 9y ago
    The system couldn't work if judges could be prosecuted for their rulings, unless you're counting bribes, which they already get prosecuted for.
• webnrrd2k 9y ago
  Almost. It takes a lot to go after a judge. The big case that comes to mind is the Cash for Kids Scandal, where Honest Services Fraud was one of the charges used. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kids_for_cash_scandal https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kids_for_cash_scandal I didn't know there was even such a thing as honest service fraud until recently. It appears to have a lot of problems as a charge, but it certainly feels like it should be used a lot more to simply prevent some of the Machiavellian screw-jobs modern business (and politics) inflict on people. I know, I'm getting a little "ranty", but doesn't the term "honest service fraud" seem to fit so many of the problems caused by big organizations today?
• avs733 9y ago
  I may be being overly pedantic, but I believe there is a little submeaning in your post. I believe judges have immunity from retaliation within the judicial system. As far as I am aware, state medical boards are non-judicial and do have the authority to issue fines for such things as practicing medicine without a license.