> So just because "Al Gore and I" is an object > that requires object case, it does not mean > that "I" is an object that requires object case. > By the l

> So just because "Al Gore and I" is an object > that requires object case, it does not mean > that "I" is an object that requires object case. > By the logic of grammar, the pronoun is free to > have any case it wants. This is the only part of the article that seems controversial to me and I cannot explain why it seems wrong! The closest I can get is to suggest that a paraphrase of "Give Al Gore and I a chance" is "Give Al Gore a chance, and me too" and that this intended meaning is what constrains the pronoun to be "me".