Well, those 1% could in theory have 99.99% of all income. So the justification that "because it's only 1%" (of people) is wrong. In fact, neither the median no

Well, those 1% could in theory have 99.99% of all income. So the justification that "because it's only 1%" (of people) is wrong. In fact, neither the median nor the average supports my point, but the share of the income total of those 1% relative to the sum of all incomes.