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Indeed. To make such a claim demonstrates a misunderstanding of what formalism is. When human beings develop formalisms, they do so on the basis of semantics. I
by danielam 9y ago
Indeed. To make such a claim demonstrates a misunderstanding of what formalism is. When human beings develop formalisms, they do so on the basis of semantics. If I wish to formalize something, I must first have a relevant understanding of the nature of the thing, or things involved and the relations between them. The development of formalism is a translation of semantics into syntactic rules devoid of meaning. Doing so allows us to mechanize reasoning. Algebra is an example of an early move in this direction. Something we learn in mathematics is that two theories concerning different objects can be formally equivalent.
Computers are strictly devoid of semantics. They are, at best, purely syntactic machines. There is no amount of syntax than can ever lead to semantics. Strictly speaking, computers don't even compute.
Further reading: http://edwardfeser.blogspot.com/2013/10/do-machines-compute-functions.html http://edwardfeser.blogspot.com/2013/10/do-machines-compute-...
- jamesrcole 9y agoFor a bit of context on Feser and his views, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edward_Feser https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edward_Feser
- simonh 9y ago> Something we learn in mathematics is that two theories concerning different objects can be formally equivalent. Can be, but do not have to be. A distinction through which a host of mistakes have fallen, including Donald Hoffman's 'disproof' of functionalism.