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"The poor" and "the rich" are categories. How can there be recourse when no individual harm has been done? If a single rich person did something wrong against a
by ci5er 9y ago
"The poor" and "the rich" are categories. How can there be recourse when no individual harm has been done? If a single rich person did something wrong against a single poor person - then, of course, there is a path to recourse. Class-action suits exist for entire groups that have been harmed, but I don't think that would extend to greed or envy for wanting to level disparate levels of income or wealth and calling that "harm".
- thatcat 9y agoYou can take recourse against non-specific action. For example the recourse to speeding at is using anti speeding laws and enforcement to create a disincentive. Labor laws, unions, and progressive taxes are the forms of class-action generally taken for recourse against this non-specific harm.