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That's not really how I interpreted their message. It's more likely that a woman is homeless due to an abusive relationship than it is a man being homeless due
by msinclair 9y ago
That's not really how I interpreted their message. It's more likely that a woman is homeless due to an abusive relationship than it is a man being homeless due to an abusive relationship. That isn't saying women are less likely to be homeless due to drugs. Independent statements.
- nsnick 9y agoWhy do you assume that domestic abuse is more often directed at women? http://time.com/2921491/hope-solo-women-violence/ http://time.com/2921491/hope-solo-women-violence/
- discodave 9y agoBecause it is. Here is a quote from wikipedia, from a sentence with 3 citations at the end of it: "there is a large body of cross-cultural evidence that women are subjected to domestic violence significantly more often than men." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domestic_violence#Gender_differences https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domestic_violence#Gender_diffe...
- HappyTypist 9y agoDomestic abuse is not the same as domestic violence.
- nindalf 9y agoIf you're going to disagree with someone, it's your responsibility to substantiate that disagreement. If that's too much of an effort, best not to say anything at all.
- discodave 9y agoFor anybody wondering if there is a difference between domestic abuse and domestic violence, according to the legal system, in the US, there is no clear delineation. "Although some states use the term domestic violence while others use domestic abuse, the terms describe similar conduct." http://www.criminaldefenselawyer.com/resources/criminal-defense/criminal-offense/differentiating-between-domestic-violence-abuse http://www.criminaldefenselawyer.com/resources/criminal-defe...
- marvin 9y agoYou can't summarize a 4-paragraph nuanced discussion with "Because it is." by cherry-picking one sentence from one study. Even the Wikipedia link, which is likely to be biased in the direction of older research simply due to the volume, points out that there is significant debate around this. Recent studies conclude with a much more equal gender distribution among victims, as OP points out.
- msinclair 9y agoThat isn't what I said. I stated that it is more likely that a woman would be homeless from domestic abuse, not that men aren't the target of domestic abuse.
- nsnick 9y agoWhy would domestic abuse cause women to become homeless more often than men? If a woman runs away from her abuser, there are countless shelters she can go to. If a man runs away from his abuser, there is really nowhere he can go.
- thaumasiotes 9y agoThey certainly aren't independent statements. Share of homelessness due to an abusive relationship + share of homelessness due to drugs + share of homelessness for all other reasons = 1. If one of those variables goes higher, one or both of the others must go lower. On the assumption that one of those reasons gets more common "all else equal"... both of the others will go lower.
- mjevans 9y agoYou are correct in the zero sum outcome for the //ENTIRE// homeless population; however you are not correct in the sense of a hypothetical subject being homeless. A singular case subject/family could be homeless for MULTIPLE reasons or None (other than other of course) outlined above.
- thaumasiotes 9y ago> You are correct in the zero sum outcome for the //ENTIRE// homeless population; however you are not correct in the sense of a hypothetical subject being homeless. This is wrong. What's correct as a description of the entire female homeless population is equally correct as a probability assignment for one element of it. Your second sentence is unrelated to your first, and also applies equally well to the entire population as to an individual sample from it. It is arguing that the sum I describe is in fact more than 1. That is defensible, but it won't make the statements independent; they aren't.
- msinclair 9y agoThe OP didn't say that women were homeless due to abuse and not drugs and that men were homeless due to drugs/PTSD. In fact if you read what they wrote, they didn't specify sex at all. A man can be homeless due to an abusive relationship, they never said they couldn't. Hence independent statements. nsnick was the one assuming something.
- cabalamat 9y ago> Share of homelessness due to an abusive relationship + share of homelessness due to drugs + share of homelessness for all other reasons = 1. No, because someone can be homeless for multiple reasons.