When I see a statement such as, Income in men declined 10-19% over several decades, I think: OK. Why? Is the ratio of young/old different from before? Were t

When I see a statement such as, Income in men declined 10-19% over several decades, I think: OK. Why? Is the ratio of young/old different from before? Were those living on social security included in those stats? What does that have to do with wages? Is it because men are choosing different jobs? Is it because they are working fewer hours? Is it because they are choosing to earn less, because cable TV and internet connection are enough? Is it because cars cost less? Is it because, generally over the population, men are choosing activities other than work? Is it because feminists have changed women who have changed men into deciding not to marry women, generally over the population, which reduces the drive or opportunity to pursue larger incomes? Is the pay hidden somehow, more now than before, going to medical costs instead of salary? The conclusions in the news article depend heavily on definitions for "middle class" and "workers" and seem to assume that wealth equals money and that income equals wages.