4 ms·
Luckily we solved this by uncoupling wages from general productivity starting in the 70s http://www.epi.org/productivity-pay-gap/ http://www.epi.org/productivi
by legulere 10y ago
Luckily we solved this by uncoupling wages from general productivity starting in the 70s
http://www.epi.org/productivity-pay-gap/ http://www.epi.org/productivity-pay-gap/
- harryh 10y agoThat graph is fairly deceptive. While labor's share of national income has gone down slightly (mostly post 2000) it's not nearly as dramatic as presented there. This is a good read on the topic: http://www.themoneyillusion.com/?p=30566 http://www.themoneyillusion.com/?p=30566 I think one of the bigger sources of the discrepancy is comparing mean productivity to median wages. If productivity and wages were both normally distributed, this would be fine. But they are not.