You can look at other statistics, such as the wage share of income, and the correlation between productivity and wages. In the case of Australia at least, the w

You can look at other statistics, such as the wage share of income, and the correlation between productivity and wages. In the case of Australia at least, the wage share has been declining for the past 20 years, and productivity growth decoupled from wages growth in the late 1990. If you then look at real net national disposable income per capita, it has not been rising (in fact it is in the same place today that it was in ~2012) in a way that would indicate that benefits of technology/automation are spreading via lower prices/higher quality. In Australia we have observed a steady rise in profit share of total factor income from the early 1970s, with only recent decreases related to commodity prices/terms of trade. This [1] report indicates that falling wage share is ubiquitous among developed countries. [1] https://www.oecd.org/g20/topics/employment-and-social-policy/The-Labour-Share-in-G20-Economies.pdf https://www.oecd.org/g20/topics/employment-and-social-policy...