I have a hard time separating the argument you are attempting to make from the "just following orders" argument. That is, that immoral behavior is excusable or

I have a hard time separating the argument you are attempting to make from the "just following orders" argument. That is, that immoral behavior is excusable or at least less-immoral as long as the actor is just following orders for their own self-preservation. Of course, this viewpoint has not been very well regarded, especially when used by actors of militaristic war crimes. Is there a difference that you can elaborate for me?