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Interesting... So seeing that it's a federal standard, now I wonder whether it is sufficient notification of recording... If so, as you point out it seems like
by jdmichal 10y ago
Interesting... So seeing that it's a federal standard, now I wonder whether it is sufficient notification of recording...
If so, as you point out it seems like an interesting way to avoid having to announce the recording to those not knowledgeable.
EDIT: I don't know how reliable this site is, but it seems to indicate the recording beep is sufficient for notification, but not sufficient for consent, which makes sense.
http://www.justanswer.com/criminal-law/5dj81-question-recording-phone-calls-legal.html http://www.justanswer.com/criminal-law/5dj81-question-record...
- mcbits 10y agoIt looks like the beep is sufficient for recording from a one-party state calling a two-party state, since federal law supercedes the other state's law. Actual consent would be required if the recorder is in a two-party state, even if the other party is in a one-party state. But even if the recording is "technically legal" without consent, using it as evidence in the two-party state could still be problematic. So I guess it wouldn't be a good idea to rely on the beep alone.