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Bear in mind that germany declared war on the US in december 1941 and the US took some time to mobilize, it was only in 1943 the US agreed to cross the channel

by cynusx 10y ago

Bear in mind that germany declared war on the US in december 1941 and the US took some time to mobilize, it was only in 1943 the US agreed to cross the channel and open a second front in may 1944. This decision was made after the battle of stalingrad and battle of kursk which destroyed the German army ability to mount major offensives and when the soviets liberated half of ukraine. If they wouldn't have done this then the russians would still have captured Berlin in 1945 and there would be nobody to stop them from 'liberating' the whole of europe. This second front wasn't needed, Germany was losing the war already. It was needed though to prevent the russians from occupying the rest of europe. The combined state would be geographically secure, resource independent and demographically superior to the US.

nickik 10y ago
I was talking about WW1. Wilson acted again the allies when he restricted financial transactions with them. The germans forced his hand with the Zimmermann telegram and unrestricted submarine warefare. About WW2 I would say that the US wanted to invade Europe earlier but the Brits did not agree. Also it was completly impossible to do it earlier and that why the Brits didnt agree. If it was all about stopping the Soviets, why would they give them that many weapons. The Soviets would have taken years longer without the blockade of Germany and Land-Lease.
- cynusx 10y ago
  In WWI the US finally intervened as Germany pursued unrestricted submarine warfare, directly ignoring US wishes. However, the US also realized that continental europe ignoring US wishes would be the default regardless of which party won. If Berlin won then the combined nation would be able to gain domination of the seas and therefore global trade. If the allied won, then they would have excluded america from world trade to rebuild their economies. As for WWII, the US could have focussed on Japan but instead they had a Europe First strategy which involved denying nazi germany european hegemony. However, by the time they actually decided to invade it was clear Germany was already defeated by the soviets and it was a matter of time.

by cynusx 10y ago

nickik 10y ago

I was talking about WW1. Wilson acted again the allies when he restricted financial transactions with them. The germans forced his hand with the Zimmermann telegram and unrestricted submarine warefare. About WW2 I would say that the US wanted to invade Europe earlier but the Brits did not agree. Also it was completly impossible to do it earlier and that why the Brits didnt agree. If it was all about stopping the Soviets, why would they give them that many weapons. The Soviets would have taken years longer without the blockade of Germany and Land-Lease.

cynusx 10y ago
In WWI the US finally intervened as Germany pursued unrestricted submarine warfare, directly ignoring US wishes. However, the US also realized that continental europe ignoring US wishes would be the default regardless of which party won. If Berlin won then the combined nation would be able to gain domination of the seas and therefore global trade. If the allied won, then they would have excluded america from world trade to rebuild their economies. As for WWII, the US could have focussed on Japan but instead they had a Europe First strategy which involved denying nazi germany european hegemony. However, by the time they actually decided to invade it was clear Germany was already defeated by the soviets and it was a matter of time.