4 ms·
Why did Roman numeral notation change in the middle ages?
by tjmaxal 16y ago
Why did Roman numeral notation change in the middle ages?
- Daemmerung 16y agoFibonnaci and his Liber abaci, written after he encountered the superior Indo-Arabic system. See http://pass.maths.org.uk/issue3/fibonacci/index.html http://pass.maths.org.uk/issue3/fibonacci/index.html
- gjm11 16y agoI don't think the question you're answering ("why were Roman numerals replaced by Arabic?") is the same as the one that was being asked ("why did people using Roman numerals switch from IIII to IV?"). I think the answer to that latter question is unknown.
- Daemmerung 16y agoAh. I completely misunderstood the question, having just finished reading The Man Who Loved Only Numbers, which had a brief digression on Fibonnaci's evangelism of Arabic numerals to the Pisan mercantile class. Mea culpa.