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This seems similar, but not identical, to the statement: If there is not a climate trend, we would expect this to happen with a .05 chance. If they meant the
by archgoon 10y ago
This seems similar, but not identical, to the statement:
If there is not a climate trend, we would expect this to happen with a .05 chance.
If they meant the latter, my confusion is resolved.
- acover 10y agoThis is the blind leading the blind. Fundamental truth: bayes theorem. P(evidence | null hypothesis) = P(null hypothesis | evidence) * P (evidence) / P (null hypothesis) The P-value test determines: P(evidence | null hypothesis) = 0.5% = there is a 0.5% chance of the observed evidence given the null hypothesis The statement "We estimate that there is a 99.5 percent chance that the observed retreat did not happen in the absence of a climate trend." translates to P(!null hypothesis | evidence) = 99.5% By Bayes theorem: P(!null hypothesis | evidence) = P(evidence | !null hypothesis) * P (!null hypothesis) / P (evidence) We know almost none of these terms. The answer is not as simple as 99.5.
- archgoon 10y agoOh I thought we were having an interesting discussion about the linguistic mapping between probability and regular English. Sorry for wasting your time. :(
- deleted 10y ago[deleted]