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I don't see why 48% would imply an accuracy of less than ±1%. When people make predictions or forecasts, they typically don't include error margins when talking
by jstevens85 16y ago
I don't see why 48% would imply an accuracy of less than ±1%. When people make predictions or forecasts, they typically don't include error margins when talking to the public. For example, the US 2010 deficit forecast is $1.17 trillion. I have no idea where one could find the margin of error for that forecast.
- Natsu 16y agoThere are two significant figures in "48%" so one assumes that it means ±1% unless some other accuracy level is supplied. Maybe it's overly pedantic of me to suppose that they even know what significant figures are, but even so, I can't find any reasonable way for them to arrive at a statistic like that doesn't involve making up numbers.