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> claims that 48% of spending on mobile advertising in the United States So, to clarify, that's 48% by dollars not number of ads served. And it's US only.

• Natsu 16y ago
  48% implies an accuracy of plus or minus 1%. I don't care how fancy the spreadsheet that gave them that prediction was, that number appears to have been sourced from someone's posterior. There's no way they can predict it with that accuracy. I'd believe that it's a target, or a goal, but that still doesn't sound right. Why wouldn't they aim for 50% or 51%? Why can they almost, but not quite, capture a majority? An attempt to manage expectations?
  • xenophanes 16y ago
    I'm not sure why your comment is a child of mine. I was just clarifying the post title which left some things out. You're commenting on the unrelated issue of how accurate the prediction is.
  • jstevens85 16y ago
    I don't see why 48% would imply an accuracy of less than ±1%. When people make predictions or forecasts, they typically don't include error margins when talking to the public. For example, the US 2010 deficit forecast is $1.17 trillion. I have no idea where one could find the margin of error for that forecast.
    • Natsu 16y ago
      There are two significant figures in "48%" so one assumes that it means ±1% unless some other accuracy level is supplied. Maybe it's overly pedantic of me to suppose that they even know what significant figures are, but even so, I can't find any reasonable way for them to arrive at a statistic like that doesn't involve making up numbers.
• deleted 16y ago
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