5 ms·

> I don't think this is the differentiating factor. Good for you. Multiple studies and the FBI's own crime statistics prove you wrong. > Plus, the US is extre

by lj3 10y ago

> I don't think this is the differentiating factor. Good for you. Multiple studies and the FBI's own crime statistics prove you wrong. > Plus, the US is extremely individualistic, while European countries tend to be more communal. Irrelevant. Not all European countries are communal and some of the highest crime rate countries in the world are communal. > Finally, the US has far higher gun ownership, so law enforcement in the US has to deal with gun violence while Europe does not. Czech republic has just as high a gun ownership rate as the US, but much lower crime. The reason? Homogeneous population. Do you want to make any other arguments that have been debunked to hell? I haven't heard you use the word 'racism' yet.

Veratyr 10y ago
> Multiple studies and the FBI's own crime statistics prove you wrong. Cite them, please. Particularly, cite the ones showing that: - Europe is not diverse. - Diversity causes increased crime (and is not just correlated, in which case other factors like poverty, which seem to be correlated with diversity in the US, could be a factor). To provide some evidence of my own, here's some evidence that violent crime in the USA is heavily correlated with poverty: https://www.bjs.gov/index.cfm?ty=pbdetail&iid=5137 https://www.bjs.gov/index.cfm?ty=pbdetail&iid=5137 And here's some more evidence showing that poverty is associated with being a minority ethnicity: https://www.census.gov/prod/2013pubs/acsbr11-17.pdf https://www.census.gov/prod/2013pubs/acsbr11-17.pdf So it seems likely that crime is correlated with diversity but it also seems (to me) that diversity isn't the cause, poverty is (you can see in the first link that whites in poverty have similar crime rates to blacks in poverty). > Irrelevant. Not all European countries are communal and some of the highest crime rate countries in the world are communal. I never said it was a sole factor, I believe it's a contributing factor. Those countries with high amounts of violence are also influenced by other factors, like poverty and lack of stable government. Those communal countries also tend to be more "socialist", which leads to reduced poverty, reduced income inequality and hence, I believe, reduced crime. To provide some evidence, it seems that people on the lowest end of the income spectrum in most of Europe have more income than their counterparts in the USA: http://www.slate.com/blogs/moneybox/2015/01/05/america_s_poor_vs_the_rest_of_the_world.html http://www.slate.com/blogs/moneybox/2015/01/05/america_s_poo... > Czech republic has just as high a gun ownership rate as the US, but much lower crime. The reason? Homogeneous population. No it doesn't. Wikipedia puts the number of license holders (and note that a license is required) at 300k: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gun_laws_in_the_Czech_Republic https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gun_laws_in_the_Czech_Republic The population of the Czech Republic is 10m, that puts gun ownership at ~3%. This puts gun ownership in the US at ~22%, over 6x higher: http://www.guns.com/2016/09/20/how-many-guns-owned-by-how-many-americans/ http://www.guns.com/2016/09/20/how-many-guns-owned-by-how-ma... Further, you provide no source to support your assertion that Czech crime is lower because of a culturally homogenous population. > Do you want to make any other arguments that have been debunked to hell? Nothing's been debunked so far, I've simply made some suggestions and you've thrown "you're wrong" at me without any evidence to support your assertion. I've now expanded my argument, feel free to show that my evidence or the logic based upon it is flawed.
- lj3 10y ago
  > I've simply made some suggestions and you've thrown "you're wrong" at me without any evidence to support your assertion. I haven't quoted the mathematical proof that 2 + 2 = 4 either. Next you'll be asking me for evidence of that as well. The studies I referred to are freely available on the internet. If you want to shore up your faulty arguments, go find them.
  - Veratyr 10y ago
    I'm not asking you to start from scratch and define a number system, I'm asking you to back up your assertions with evidence so that we can have a constructive dialog.

by lj3 10y ago

Veratyr 10y ago

> Multiple studies and the FBI's own crime statistics prove you wrong. Cite them, please. Particularly, cite the ones showing that: - Europe is not diverse. - Diversity causes increased crime (and is not just correlated, in which case other factors like poverty, which seem to be correlated with diversity in the US, could be a factor). To provide some evidence of my own, here's some evidence that violent crime in the USA is heavily correlated with poverty: https://www.bjs.gov/index.cfm?ty=pbdetail&iid=5137 https://www.bjs.gov/index.cfm?ty=pbdetail&iid=5137 And here's some more evidence showing that poverty is associated with being a minority ethnicity: https://www.census.gov/prod/2013pubs/acsbr11-17.pdf https://www.census.gov/prod/2013pubs/acsbr11-17.pdf So it seems likely that crime is correlated with diversity but it also seems (to me) that diversity isn't the cause, poverty is (you can see in the first link that whites in poverty have similar crime rates to blacks in poverty). > Irrelevant. Not all European countries are communal and some of the highest crime rate countries in the world are communal. I never said it was a sole factor, I believe it's a contributing factor. Those countries with high amounts of violence are also influenced by other factors, like poverty and lack of stable government. Those communal countries also tend to be more "socialist", which leads to reduced poverty, reduced income inequality and hence, I believe, reduced crime. To provide some evidence, it seems that people on the lowest end of the income spectrum in most of Europe have more income than their counterparts in the USA: http://www.slate.com/blogs/moneybox/2015/01/05/america_s_poor_vs_the_rest_of_the_world.html http://www.slate.com/blogs/moneybox/2015/01/05/america_s_poo... > Czech republic has just as high a gun ownership rate as the US, but much lower crime. The reason? Homogeneous population. No it doesn't. Wikipedia puts the number of license holders (and note that a license is required) at 300k: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gun_laws_in_the_Czech_Republic https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gun_laws_in_the_Czech_Republic The population of the Czech Republic is 10m, that puts gun ownership at ~3%. This puts gun ownership in the US at ~22%, over 6x higher: http://www.guns.com/2016/09/20/how-many-guns-owned-by-how-many-americans/ http://www.guns.com/2016/09/20/how-many-guns-owned-by-how-ma... Further, you provide no source to support your assertion that Czech crime is lower because of a culturally homogenous population. > Do you want to make any other arguments that have been debunked to hell? Nothing's been debunked so far, I've simply made some suggestions and you've thrown "you're wrong" at me without any evidence to support your assertion. I've now expanded my argument, feel free to show that my evidence or the logic based upon it is flawed.

lj3 10y ago
> I've simply made some suggestions and you've thrown "you're wrong" at me without any evidence to support your assertion. I haven't quoted the mathematical proof that 2 + 2 = 4 either. Next you'll be asking me for evidence of that as well. The studies I referred to are freely available on the internet. If you want to shore up your faulty arguments, go find them.
- Veratyr 10y ago
  I'm not asking you to start from scratch and define a number system, I'm asking you to back up your assertions with evidence so that we can have a constructive dialog.