5 ms·

Because of limited liability?

• jrockway 16y ago
  If I paid someone to drain a bunch of oil into the ocean, I'd be in trouble. But if I "invest in" BP and it does the same, I'm OK. Why?
  • ekanes 16y ago
    The difference isn't anything to do with you paying (or owning stock in them) but rather intention. If you were paying someone to refill boats with oil, and they unintentionally spilled a bunch (just as BP did), you'd be liable in the same way as BP is now. Note that BP is in trouble... There will be lawsuits all over the place, and not just from shareholders.
    • jrockway 16y ago
      My question is, why not go after the shareholders in addition to BP?
      • ComputerGuru 16y ago
        simply enough: it's. not. their. fault.
        • jrockway 16y ago
          How many shares do you have to sell before it's not $crime_for_hire?
          • skorgu 16y ago
            Mu. Buying a hitman lunch does not make you an accessory to murder.
  • itgoon 16y ago
    In an ideal situation, you would not be okay. BP wouldn't have even the potential of protection, and your investment would be wiped out. Your punishment would be proportionate to your involvement.
  • daniel-cussen 16y ago
    Well, if you gave the orders or where an accessory or actor, you're still in trouble. If that's what you mean by putting "invest in" in quotes.