5 ms·
Since we are being pedantic, doesn't grammer refer to the spoken language and not the spelling conventions used to represent it, in other words this person is a
by cwmma 10y ago
Since we are being pedantic, doesn't grammer refer to the spoken language and not the spelling conventions used to represent it, in other words this person is a spelling bandit, or more specifically a punctuation bandit
- Asooka 10y agoGrammar encompasses punctuation.
- cwmma 10y agoPunctuation would be part of orthography which is usually considered distinct. Consider you can have multiple writing systems for a single language, that single language would have a single set of grammar rules, but would have multiple orthographic rules applied to it. Put another way, if I was to invent apostropheless English which was exactly like English but just omits all written apostrophes that wouldn't change the rules of English grammar, possessives would still be possessive etc.
- jbmorgado 10y agoThe lack of or extraneous apostrophes is clearly a grammar mistake, not only a spelling one.
- Udik 10y agoNot really, it would be a grammar mistake if they actually meant, let's say, "its" in place of "it's". Since the pronunciation of the two is the same, they word they actually meant to write is "it's", they just spell it wrongly. Oh, can I add another pet peeve. "Semantics" when discussing naming of things when the meaning is clear. "Semantics" is about meaning, not about naming. But it's "semantics", obviously :).
- ggambetta 10y agoSince we are being pedantic, "grammar" is spelled "grammar" :)