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I am no coffee drinker, but I'm surprised that they think their results are conclusive based on a single instance of a placebo administered. Especially when the

by tmsh 16y ago

I am no coffee drinker, but I'm surprised that they think their results are conclusive based on a single instance of a placebo administered. Especially when the results are so neurological, that surely the brain compensates the first time a placebo is given -- and gradually (like with any neurotransmitter-affecting chemical) gets rid of its self-generating effects. 'Tests on 379 individuals who abstained from caffeine for 16 hours before being given either caffeine or a placebo...' Seems like -- cue Pavlovian response, but in your brain.... I'd be more impressed if they were given the placebo/caffeine for a week and still performed the same on the tests..

seabee 16y ago
Read the article more closely, no Pavlovian response occurred: "The medium/high caffeine consumers who received the placebo reported a decrease in alertness and an increase in headache, neither of which were reported by those who received caffeine. However, their post-caffeine levels of alertness were no higher than the non/low consumers who received a placebo, suggesting caffeine only brings coffee drinkers back up to 'normal'."
- tmsh 16y ago
  I see now, thanks. So: For medium/high caffeine consumers: placebo -> decrease (and headache) caffeine -> 'level 1' Non/low caffeine consumers: placebo-> 'level 1' caffeine -> 'level 2' (where level 2 > level 1). However, I still think there might be some confusion in using a single instance for testing, esp. testing alertness. There might be a large withdrawal symptom going on in the brain that first time that makes alertness more difficult in general.
billswift 16y ago
I am a heavy coffee drinker; I like the taste and thought I was getting some stimulant effect. But last fall and early winter I tested myself (described a little more here - http://williambswift.blogspot.com/2010/01/drugs-and-their-non-effects.html http://williambswift.blogspot.com/2010/01/drugs-and-their-no...) varying my dosage of caffeine, but keeping it steady at each dosage for a week at a time. And discovered I could find no evidence of any effect at all on me.

by tmsh 16y ago

seabee 16y ago

Read the article more closely, no Pavlovian response occurred: "The medium/high caffeine consumers who received the placebo reported a decrease in alertness and an increase in headache, neither of which were reported by those who received caffeine. However, their post-caffeine levels of alertness were no higher than the non/low consumers who received a placebo, suggesting caffeine only brings coffee drinkers back up to 'normal'."

tmsh 16y ago
I see now, thanks. So: For medium/high caffeine consumers: placebo -> decrease (and headache) caffeine -> 'level 1' Non/low caffeine consumers: placebo-> 'level 1' caffeine -> 'level 2' (where level 2 > level 1). However, I still think there might be some confusion in using a single instance for testing, esp. testing alertness. There might be a large withdrawal symptom going on in the brain that first time that makes alertness more difficult in general.

billswift 16y ago

I am a heavy coffee drinker; I like the taste and thought I was getting some stimulant effect. But last fall and early winter I tested myself (described a little more here - http://williambswift.blogspot.com/2010/01/drugs-and-their-non-effects.html http://williambswift.blogspot.com/2010/01/drugs-and-their-no...) varying my dosage of caffeine, but keeping it steady at each dosage for a week at a time. And discovered I could find no evidence of any effect at all on me.