Sorry, but isn't this argument logically inconsistent? If Spain was going to veto an independent Scotland's entry into the EU before, why wouldn't it now? Why

Sorry, but isn't this argument logically inconsistent? If Spain was going to veto an independent Scotland's entry into the EU before, why wouldn't it now? Why has anything changed from their perspective? And why so confident that Spain would veto anyway? The situation with a Scotland that had voted democratically to separate from the UK would be quite different to the political situation in Spain. Also, why would the remaining UK have vetoed it before? There was a lot of fear-mongering going on before the referendum, but there doesn't seem to be any good reason the UK should object, and doing so on purely political grounds could easily backfire. If the remaining UK was expecting to remain in the EU as well (which, I think it's fair to say, most people did expect at that point) then an independent Scotland also being in the EU would have made issues at the border much easier, so if anything you'd think the UK would have encouraged Scotland to join the EU. I'm quite sure the issue of EU membership was a factor in some people's voting decisions in IndyRef1, but I don't see how Brexit combined with the argument you've made here would suggest a different outcome.