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> the possibility of leaving the EU, temporarily [...], if they voted to leave the UK [was] widely known and understood. I don't know what you're trying to ac

by euyyn 10y ago

> the possibility of leaving the EU, temporarily [...], if they voted to leave the UK [was] widely known and understood. I don't know what you're trying to achieve by mischaracterizing that "temporarily" leaving the EU was an option. Member states can veto new entries, and both Spain and the UK threatened that seceding meant no more EU for Scotland. You'll only fool yourself by arguing that the threat of being kicked out of the EU wasn't a factor in people's minds. Before Brexit, voting to remain in the UK was the only way to prevent that; after Brexit, voting to secede from the UK is the only way to prevent it. A referendum is what'll provide the evidence of how much those changing circumstances have affected the vote.

Silhouette 10y ago
Sorry, but isn't this argument logically inconsistent? If Spain was going to veto an independent Scotland's entry into the EU before, why wouldn't it now? Why has anything changed from their perspective? And why so confident that Spain would veto anyway? The situation with a Scotland that had voted democratically to separate from the UK would be quite different to the political situation in Spain. Also, why would the remaining UK have vetoed it before? There was a lot of fear-mongering going on before the referendum, but there doesn't seem to be any good reason the UK should object, and doing so on purely political grounds could easily backfire. If the remaining UK was expecting to remain in the EU as well (which, I think it's fair to say, most people did expect at that point) then an independent Scotland also being in the EU would have made issues at the border much easier, so if anything you'd think the UK would have encouraged Scotland to join the EU. I'm quite sure the issue of EU membership was a factor in some people's voting decisions in IndyRef1, but I don't see how Brexit combined with the argument you've made here would suggest a different outcome.

by euyyn 10y ago

Silhouette 10y ago

Sorry, but isn't this argument logically inconsistent? If Spain was going to veto an independent Scotland's entry into the EU before, why wouldn't it now? Why has anything changed from their perspective? And why so confident that Spain would veto anyway? The situation with a Scotland that had voted democratically to separate from the UK would be quite different to the political situation in Spain. Also, why would the remaining UK have vetoed it before? There was a lot of fear-mongering going on before the referendum, but there doesn't seem to be any good reason the UK should object, and doing so on purely political grounds could easily backfire. If the remaining UK was expecting to remain in the EU as well (which, I think it's fair to say, most people did expect at that point) then an independent Scotland also being in the EU would have made issues at the border much easier, so if anything you'd think the UK would have encouraged Scotland to join the EU. I'm quite sure the issue of EU membership was a factor in some people's voting decisions in IndyRef1, but I don't see how Brexit combined with the argument you've made here would suggest a different outcome.