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Isn't doing this type of data collection without consent already banned under the [Wiretap Act](https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/2511 https://www.law.
by slang800 10y ago
Isn't doing this type of data collection without consent already banned under the [Wiretap Act](https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/2511 https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/2511)? What part of these protections weren't redundant?
- mikeyouse 10y agoWithout consent is the important part, it will soon be part of your ISP's TOS to allow them to sell your data. The wiretap act has a specific call out for this occasion: > (d) It shall not be unlawful under this chapter for a person not acting under color of law to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication where such person is a party to the communication or where one of the parties to the communication has given prior consent to such interception unless such communication is intercepted for the purpose of committing any criminal or tortious act in violation of the Constitution or laws of the United States or of any State.
- slang800 10y agoBut the FCC rules that were repealed allowed data collection if you "opt-in" too, right? I haven't read the entire text of the legislation, but their news release covers this: https://apps.fcc.gov/edocs_public/attachmatch/DOC-341937A1.pdf https://apps.fcc.gov/edocs_public/attachmatch/DOC-341937A1.p... > Opt-in: ISPs are required to obtain affirmative “opt-in” consent from consumers to use and share sensitive information. The rules specify categories of information that are considered sensitive, which include precise geo-location, financial information, health information, children’s information, social security numbers, web browsing history, app usage history and the content of communications.
- pseudalopex 10y agoThe FCC rules prohibited making consent a condition of service.