3 ms·

So what this is saying is, if you don't have "1" in your numerical system, you can recover it by taking φ to the power of infinity and then dividing by infinity

So what this is saying is, if you don't have "1" in your numerical system, you can recover it by taking φ to the power of infinity and then dividing by infinity?

deleted 10y ago
[deleted]
pmalynin 10y ago
Any "number system" (be it a field, ring, or multiplicative group) has a "1"
- Smaug123 10y ago
  Depends on your definition of "ring"; for some people, a ring need not have a multiplicative identity. But yes, any number system worth its salt has at least a couple of integers in it.
  - drdeca 10y ago
    Wouldn't a ring without a multiplicative identity be a rng rather than a ring?
    - Filligree 10y ago
      Only if it started as a riiiing...
- Filligree 10y ago
  I was joking. :X
qq66 10y ago
φ is expressed in terms of 1, so if you have "φ" you have "1."