2 ms·
I do think "high CSF pressure is mood altering/predisposing to tear activity" precisely because the CSF pressure needs to be brought down" (in this hypothesis.)
by Nomentatus 10y ago
I do think "high CSF pressure is mood altering/predisposing to tear activity" precisely because the CSF pressure needs to be brought down" (in this hypothesis.) and that high CSF is the result of an underlying cause that also expresses itself in lactrimal gland activity, due to said pressure. I think you'd have to do an arabesque to find an underlying cause with two roots from some underlying cause rather than one (obviously more complex even if you can think up such a thing) (and it wouldn't explain the study I cited.) But knock yourself out, suggest such a causal arrangement/pathway.
The I believe very recent study I saw found a high correlation. I've heard anecdotal reports of eyedrops helping; it's too soon to find studies of (neutral) eyedrops helping, but you can find preliminary studies of migraine treatment beta blocker eyedrops at pubmed dot com.
No tail wagging dog - it's common for studies about one thing to discover something interesting that's consistent with quite another hypothesis (which is the most evidence can be, qua Popper.) That's all I've claimed in this case. There was no such correlation with saliva, so it's clear that disproof was risked - the Popperian litmus test for actual evidence.