7 ms·
I get that, but ultimately, why does the notation distinguish between the two classes "function with zero arguments held constant" and "function with n >= 1 arg
by mwane 10y ago
I get that, but ultimately, why does the notation distinguish between the two classes "function with zero arguments held constant" and "function with n >= 1 arguments held constant"? It seems somewhat of an arbitrary distinction, when in fact the value of n is always clear from the context.
- piefoot 10y agoI think that the difference is from historical reasons, anyway when if you introduce in school partial derivatives with functions of only one variable that is confusing because here partial is not partial but global.