My language is a bit loose, of course the BoE is independent and controls the rate. But the government sets the BoE remit to use the rate to keep inflation wit

My language is a bit loose, of course the BoE is independent and controls the rate. But the government sets the BoE remit to use the rate to keep inflation within acceptable bounds, and Gordon Brown decided to move from RPI (which includes some measure of mortgage payments) to CPI (which doesn't). It does seem madness that we would control monetary supply without consideration of inflation in the largest asset group that lose monetary policy impacts (actual house prices, not just mortgage payments), but then I'm no economist so what do I know.