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> Let X be infinite. That assumption is unnecessary. Cantor's theorem works just as well for finite sets: it's simply the statement that 2ⁿ > n.
by pwdisswordfish 10y ago
> Let X be infinite.
That assumption is unnecessary. Cantor's theorem works just as well for finite sets: it's simply the statement that 2ⁿ > n.
- Smaug123 10y agoTrue, thanks. I thought the proof I knew of Cantor only worked for infinite sets, and that a separate proof was required for the finite case; but actually the same proof works for both.